UPSC 2021 प्रारंभिक उत्तर कुंजी: पेपर 1 (GS), पेपर 2 (CSAT), परीक्षा विश्लेषण और अपेक्षित कट-ऑफ

UPSC 2021 Prelims Answer Key: Paper 1 (GS), Paper 2 (CSAT), Exam Analysis & Expected Cut-off

यूपीएससी 2021 प्रारंभिक उत्तर कुंजी (पेपर 1 – जीएस और पेपर 2 – सीएसएटी): यूपीएससी 2021 उत्तर कुंजी और प्रारंभिक प्रश्न पत्र (पीडीएफ) और अपडेट देखें। UPSC (IAS) प्रीलिम्स 2021 पेपर – 1 (सुबह 9:30 से 11:30 पूर्वाह्न) और पेपर – 2 (दोपहर 02:30 से 04:30 बजे) 10 अक्टूबर को आयोजित किए गए थे। UPSC (IAS) प्रीलिम्स जनरल स्टडीज पेपर 1 में भारतीय राजनीति, इतिहास, भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था, भूगोल, कला और संस्कृति, विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी और करंट अफेयर्स आदि विषयों पर 100 प्रश्न थे, जबकि एप्टीट्यूड के आधार पर पेपर 2 में 80 प्रश्न पूछे गए थे। .






UPSC 2021 Prelims Answer Key (Paper 1 – GS & Paper 2 – CSAT): Check UPSC 2021 Answer Key & Prelims Question Paper (PDF) & updates. UPSC (IAS) Prelims 2021 Paper – 1 (9:30 AM to 11:30 AM) & Paper – 2 (02:30 PM to 04:30 PM) were conducted on 10th October. UPSC (IAS) Prelims General Studies Paper 1 contained 100 questions on subjects Indian Polity, History, Indian Economy, Geography, Art and Culture, Science & Technology and Current Affairs, etc., whereas 80 questions were asked in Paper 2, based on aptitude.

jagran josh

UPSC Prelims 2021 Civil Services Exam: Question Paper (PDF)

1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 1: d
2. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements :
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2 All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 2: b
3. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
(a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate 
(b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
(c) Increase in tax rates accompanied 
(d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Answer 3: b

4. Consider the following statements: 
Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if
1. price of its substitute increases ✔
2. price of its complement increases
3. the good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increases its price falls
4. Its prices fall
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 4: a

jagran josh

5. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements : 
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 5: b




6. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 
1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 6: d

7. Consider the following:
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds of 
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 
3. Global depository receipts 
4. Non-resident external deposits
Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Answer 7: d

8. Consider the following statements:
The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily
1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
2. increases the foreign domestic currency value
3. improves the trade balance of
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer 8: a

jagran josh

9. Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
(a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing 
(b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc. 
(c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
(d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Answer 9: d

10. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
(d)  Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Answer 10: d

11. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? 
(a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
(b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
(d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer 11: c

12. With reference to demand-pull inflation can be cluby increased by which of the following?
1. Expansionary policies 
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below,
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer 12: a

jagran josh

13. With reference to India, consider the following statements : 
1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market. 
2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing SystemOrder Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 
3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

Answer 13: b

14. With reference to WaterCredit’, consider the following statements : 
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. 
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. 
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer 14: c

15. In India, the central bank’s function as the lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 
(d) 3 only 

Answer 15: b

16. ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
(a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
(b) ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
(d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer 16: a

jagran josh

Answer 17: d
Answer 18: d
Answer 19: a
Answer 20: c

jagran josh

Answer 21: c

Answer 22: b

Answer 23: d

Answer 24: a

Answer 25: d

jagran josh

Answer 26: c
Answer 27: b
Answer 28: c
Answer 29: a
Answer 30: d

jagran josh

Answer 31: c

Answer 32: a

Answer 32: a

Answer 33: a

Answer 34: b

jagran josh

Answer 35: d

Answer 36: c

Answer 37: d

Answer 38: c

jagran josh

Answer 39: d

Answer 40: b

Answer 41: b

Answer 42: b

Answer 43: a

jagran josh

Answer 44: c

Answer 45: c

Answer 46: c

Answer 47:  d

Answer 48: a

Answer 49: a

Answer 50: b

jagran josh

Answer 51: b

Answer 52: b

Answer 53: d

Answer 54: d

Answer 55: a

jagran josh

Answer 56: b

Answer 57: a

Answer 58: a

Answer 59: d

Answer 60: d

jagran josh

Answer 61: c

Answer 62: b

Answer 63: c

Answer 64: b

jagran josh

Answer 65: c

Answer 66: b

Answer 67: b

Answer 68: a

Answer 69: a

Answer 70: b

jagran josh

Answer 71: a

Answer 72: c




Answer 73: d

Answer 74: b

Answer 75: d

Answer 76: d

jagran josh

Answer 77: a

Answer 78: d

Answer 79: c

Answer 80: a

jagran josh

Answer 81: c

Answer 82: b

Answer 83: b

Answer 84: d

Answer 85: a

jagran josh

Answer 86: a

Answer 87: b




Answer 88: c

Answer 89: a

Answer 90: d

jagran josh

Answer 91: b

Answer 92: b

Answer 93: b

Answer 94: d

Answer 95: d

Answer 96: d

jagran josh

Answer 97: d

Answer 98: c

Answer 99: b

Answer 100: d





UPSC CSE Prelims 2021: Exam PatternThe exam pattern of UPSC Prelims 2021 is given below

Name of the Paper No. of Questions Total Marks Nature of Exam
General Studies Paper- I 100 200 Considered for cut-off
General Studies Paper-II (Aptitude Test) 80 200 Qualifying

Negative Marking: Every incorrect answer in the UPSC Prelims Exam carries a penalty. If a question is incorrectly answered, 1/3 of the total marks will be deducted.

Both examinations have a two-hour time limit, and the General Studies Paper-II, often known as CSAT, is qualifying in nature. The exam is held on a single day, with Paper 1 taking place in the morning and Paper 2 in the evening.

In paper 1, questions on subjects like Indian Polity, History, Geography, Indian Economy,  Art and Culture, Current Affairs and Science & Technology, etc., will be asked.

Other articles related to UPSC:

UPSC (IAS) Prelims 2021: Answer Key for 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015!



FAQ

From where can I get UPSC 2021 Prelims question paper?

From where can I get UPSC 2021 prelims answer key for GS & CSAT?




How can I get the official UPSC 2021 prelims answer key for paper 1 & paper 2?

UPSC CSE Prelims 2021: Exam Pattern

The exam pattern of UPSC Prelims 2021 is given below

Name of the Paper No. of Questions Total Marks Nature of Exam
General Studies Paper- I 100 200 Considered for cut-off
General Studies Paper-II (Aptitude Test) 80 200 Qualifying

Negative Marking: Every incorrect answer in the UPSC Prelims Exam carries a penalty. If a question is incorrectly answered, 1/3 of the total marks will be deducted.




Both examinations have a two-hour time limit, and the General Studies Paper-II, often known as CSAT, is qualifying in nature. The exam is held on a single day, with Paper 1 taking place in the morning and Paper 2 in the evening.

In paper 1, questions on subjects like Indian Polity, History, Geography, Indian Economy,  Art and Culture, Current Affairs and Science & Technology, etc., will be asked.

Other articles related to UPSC:

UPSC (IAS) Prelims 2021: Answer Key for 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015!

FAQ

From where can I get UPSC 2021 Prelims question paper?

From where can I get UPSC 2021 prelims answer key for GS & CSAT?

How can I get the official UPSC 2021 prelims answer key for paper 1 & paper 2?

शेयर करो

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

शेयर करो